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CNN features the KFC double down | by imrambi | 2010-04-09 09:59:48 |
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Can a "sandwich" be "bun-less" and still be called | by kahuana | 2010-04-09 10:02:25 |
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Never heard of such a law. (n/t) | by Lab Rat | 2010-04-09 10:17:44 |
| Regulation of product labeling. |
by vampire |
2010-04-09 11:20:41 |
The FDA has definitions of what many food products are. If you label your food using one of those defined terms then your product must comply with the FDA's definition of that term. Many countries do this. It serves three purposes. First, it prevents confusion among consumers and second, it can protect certain products from competition from lower quality imitators trying to use benefit from an already established product and third, to be a "protected designation of origin".
Example of 1 - Wiki on Velveeta:
In 2002, the FDA warned Kraft that Velveeta was being sold with packaging that described it as a "Pasteurized Process Cheese Spread,"[4] which the FDA claimed was misbranded because the product declared milk protein concentrate (MPC) in its ingredients listing. Velveeta is now sold in the U.S. as a "Pasteurized Prepared Cheese Product,"[5] a term for which the FDA does not maintain a standard of identity, and which therefore may contain MPC.
Example of 2 - see Parmesan on Wiki
Example of 3:
Bourbon is a "distinct product of the US"
Kentucky is a "distinct product of Kentucky, US"
Cognac is a distinct product of the Cognac region of France
Champagne is a distinct product of the Champagne region of France
There many many more examples.
To use any of labeling you must comply with said, usually very strict, definitions.
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For some "fun" reading, see the | by morenna | 2010-04-09 13:35:06 |
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