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pseudo philosophy question (and goodnight!) by jaqie2009-03-31 06:51:36
  I actually asked my brother this... (He's got a by L1nX2009-03-31 08:26:20
    Evaluation: by MatthewDBA2009-03-31 08:54:02
      As far as I can see, L1nX's brother is saying by twixt 2009-03-31 19:20:18
that if one item has a first-derivative slope of 0 and the other item has a second-derivative slope of 0, the item with the second-derivative slope of 0 would always exceed in magnitude the item with the first-derivative slope of 0 as one approached the limit.

IOW, in physical terms, since infinity is infinite, there will always be enough time for the item under constant acceleration to exceed the capabilities of the item under constant speed, no matter their differences in magnitude.

Extending and generalizing this, whichever item has the greater aggregate acceleration over time will win.
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