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UF Philosophy Corner - Ethics by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 08:21:28
  In order: by werehatrack2008-10-21 08:35:19
    I like all but the first. by tallastro2008-10-21 08:48:31
      Could there ever be a right by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 08:53:44
        Yes, I think so. by tallastro2008-10-21 09:02:17
          I'm not clear on one thing. by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 09:07:59
            I believe werehatrack's claim is that by bitflipper2008-10-21 09:34:39
              Disagree. by werehatrack2008-10-21 09:55:55
                Sure it is by bitflipper2008-10-21 10:11:18
                  Is that a right though, or merely a universal by subbywan2008-10-21 10:13:34
                    What is the difference between by bitflipper2008-10-21 10:27:05
                      No, because "violation" is subjective. by subbywan2008-10-21 10:52:18
                        Sometimes, though, you don't by bitflipper2008-10-21 10:56:20
                          I wanted to get away from the human examples by subbywan2008-10-21 10:59:44
                            O-kay, but it still begs the question by bitflipper2008-10-21 11:20:43
                              There isn't an appeal by subbywan2008-10-21 11:25:20
                                Which is precisely why by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 11:33:46
                                Which is exactly why I wouldn't :) by subbywan2008-10-21 11:38:55
                                Of course it can by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 11:47:55
                                Because if it can be taken away, it's conditional by subbywan2008-10-21 11:52:24
                                But a right does not guarantee outcome by bitflipper2008-10-21 12:08:10
                                Then it's not a right. by subbywan2008-10-21 12:32:51
                                Precisely. by bitflipper 2008-10-21 12:51:28
That is what makes those traits inalienable; I cannot violate them, and still leave you as you.

What makes them rights, is that they are guarantees of our freedoms. But they are not guarantees of any results. There is nothing that cannot be taken away, destroyed, abridged, or abrogated. Therefore, by your definition, there would be no rights, at all--every trait is only a privelege.

But if it is only a privelege, it can only apply to a few; it does not apply to all, and it does not apply equally. Your claim, then, would be that the very basis of society is false: society cannot offer any protections to its members because nothing can be equally applied to all--there are only priveleges, and nothing to protect the unpriveleged from the priveleged.

I assert this is false. We can easily see that life is a trait that applies to all living things, is inalienable to any living thing, and allows its possessor the ability to make choices so as to direct his life. Freedom, the same way. It is the abridgements of these rights that is applied inequitably, not the rights themselves. We are born with them, but we surrender them or they are taken from us, in unequal measure. That is privelege. The right is basic.
[ Reply ]
                                It does only apply to a few. by subbywan2008-10-21 13:14:48
                                History has demonstrated by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 13:31:32
                                Exactly. What history has demonstrated by bitflipper2008-10-21 13:36:04
                                Rights can't be taken away. by subbywan2008-10-21 13:45:49
                                Then we come back to by bitflipper2008-10-21 13:52:16
                                Which I argue is wishful thinking. by subbywan2008-10-21 13:59:29
                                Then rights exist by dint of those same by bitflipper2008-10-21 14:16:03
                                Nope. i made no such claim by subbywan2008-10-21 14:30:24

 

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