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UF Philosophy Corner - Ethics by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 08:21:28
  In order: by werehatrack2008-10-21 08:35:19
    I like all but the first. by tallastro2008-10-21 08:48:31
      Could there ever be a right by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 08:53:44
        Yes, I think so. by tallastro2008-10-21 09:02:17
          I'm not clear on one thing. by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 09:07:59
            I believe werehatrack's claim is that by bitflipper2008-10-21 09:34:39
              Disagree. by werehatrack2008-10-21 09:55:55
                Sure it is by bitflipper2008-10-21 10:11:18
                  Is that a right though, or merely a universal by subbywan2008-10-21 10:13:34
                    What is the difference between by bitflipper2008-10-21 10:27:05
                      No, because "violation" is subjective. by subbywan2008-10-21 10:52:18
                        Why should a right imply by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 10:58:57
                          Because without it, it means nothing. by subbywan2008-10-21 11:00:28
                            In what sense? by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 11:01:02
                              What is a "right" without something to back it up? by subbywan2008-10-21 11:03:57
                                "Useful" for what? by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 11:08:06
                                You haven't demonstrated that it is though by subbywan2008-10-21 11:10:11
                                As I posted elsewhere: by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 11:13:25
                                Isn't that rather the point of philosophy? by subbywan2008-10-21 11:15:16
                                In a way. by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 11:23:01
                                That is true. by subbywan2008-10-21 11:27:17
                                Which again gets back to by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 11:35:51
                                Present what you have. by subbywan2008-10-21 11:40:29
                                What I have is primarily definitional by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 11:47:08
                                What about those without senses then? by subbywan2008-10-21 11:53:47
                                Are you saying that by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 12:02:56
                                I'm questioning your statement of by subbywan 2008-10-21 12:39:53
needing senses to live up to potential. If you require senses to achieve your full potential, then logically, those without them will have a problem achieving said potential. This is particularly true of folk who lost their senses after birth - with one set of senses they have one potential, which changes as soon as that set of senses is modified.

linking senses to potential also doesn't account for folk like beethoven who exceeded their potential, despite the lack of senses.

If senses define our potential, then someone who has *no* senses can have no potential - they cannot speak, hear, see, feel or taste.

That would then mean that potential is linked to our ability to communicate.

The person with no senses at all still has a brain, and because of the lack of senses, has a truly unfettered mind, able to imagine things we cannot conceive of. As such, they may be able to conceive of things we NEED, but cannot see, because our senses constrain us, but because that person has no way to communicate with us, we'll never know.

[ Reply ]
                                I don't see where I mentioned senses by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 12:47:10
                                No, I can't. by subbywan2008-10-21 13:24:11

 

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