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UF Philosophy Corner - Ethics by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 08:21:28
  In order: by werehatrack2008-10-21 08:35:19
    I like all but the first. by tallastro2008-10-21 08:48:31
      Could there ever be a right by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 08:53:44
        Yes, I think so. by tallastro2008-10-21 09:02:17
          I'm not clear on one thing. by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 09:07:59
            I believe werehatrack's claim is that by bitflipper2008-10-21 09:34:39
              Disagree. by werehatrack2008-10-21 09:55:55
                Sure it is by bitflipper2008-10-21 10:11:18
                  Is that a right though, or merely a universal by subbywan2008-10-21 10:13:34
                    What is the difference between by bitflipper2008-10-21 10:27:05
                      No, because "violation" is subjective. by subbywan2008-10-21 10:52:18
                        Why should a right imply by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 10:58:57
                          Because without it, it means nothing. by subbywan2008-10-21 11:00:28
                            In what sense? by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 11:01:02
                              What is a "right" without something to back it up? by subbywan2008-10-21 11:03:57
                                "Useful" for what? by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 11:08:06
                                You haven't demonstrated that it is though by subbywan2008-10-21 11:10:11
                                As I posted elsewhere: by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 11:13:25
                                Isn't that rather the point of philosophy? by subbywan2008-10-21 11:15:16
                                In a way. by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 11:23:01
                                That is true. by subbywan2008-10-21 11:27:17
                                Which again gets back to by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 11:35:51
                                Present what you have. by subbywan2008-10-21 11:40:29
                                What I have is primarily definitional by MatthewDBA 2008-10-21 11:47:08
rather than evidential.

I've posted it elsewhere, but more or less in passing. So, a bit more formally:

  1. Human beings have a nature (human nature).
  2. That nature cannot be fully expressed unless particular conditions are present in a human life.
  3. I define rights as those conditions - that is, a right is a condition which is necessary in order for a human to express his full potential.
I suppose in that sense rights might not be considered "part of the human condition," but they are states which are necessary for humans to fully express their potential - which I take as the purpose of existence.

[ Reply ]
                                What about those without senses then? by subbywan2008-10-21 11:53:47
                                Are you saying that by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 12:02:56
                                I'm questioning your statement of by subbywan2008-10-21 12:39:53
                                I don't see where I mentioned senses by MatthewDBA2008-10-21 12:47:10
                                No, I can't. by subbywan2008-10-21 13:24:11

 

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