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UF Philosophy Corner	by MatthewDBA	2008-08-26 07:36:00
No, it's not.	by JimK	2008-08-26 08:58:05
That makes sense in general	by MatthewDBA	2008-08-26 09:27:41
Ahh, missed that bit.	by JimK	2008-08-26 12:59:05
So the names have been changed, but the author has not revealed this? Interesting. Do I have to call an absolute "yes" or "no"? I think in reality that any reasonable person (that definition works in law so I'll appropriate it) reading a crime story would assume, even if the story is said to be true, that the names have indeed been changed even if this is not stated. In fact, I'd go as far as to say that the idea that the names were correct would not cross the mind. Of course, that's not an abstract answer; it's firmly rooted in the reality of libel and suchlike. My answer would be about 90% "no", with about 10% "yes" for the gullible readers. Is that cheating? :-)
[ Reply ]
Not at all cheating	by MatthewDBA	2008-08-26 13:09:03
I think the cutoff is whether characters are still	by JimK	2008-08-26 13:51:40

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