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Answer me this; by hieraco2006-10-26 05:25:32
  More courtroom anomalies... by Audio2006-10-26 07:32:10
    A guess about why by SciSSorS 2006-10-26 08:51:25
the courts stopped using latin:
Well, some day, the "lingua franca" of old europe (it's not older than America, but longer known to ... to "us" )

So when France introduced a judicial system for France only, and England ... hey, were the english courts held in latin, ever since they shipped out the catholic church ?

Well, latin wasn't "in common use" any more, so there was no reason to process justice in an awkward language. It had become more practical to proceed in ... chinese in china (not porcelain!) , or french in ... er... belgium, up to the Coecke case at least -
[ Reply ]
      Huh? by Qcumber-some2006-10-26 08:56:46
        Because they're in Finland? (n/t) by kelli2172006-10-26 10:29:47

 

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