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Attn: hadji re: how many aces by hobbs2006-11-19 12:55:59
  I'd still have to see how that was modelled... by magixtechnica2006-09-08 00:25:53
    Whoa whoa by hobbs 2006-09-08 00:45:39
Take a deck, shuffle it. Cut it in half and focus on one half. There is a 65% chance that there are 2, 3, or 4 aces in this half, conversely a 35% chance that there are 0 or 1 aces. Likewise, there is a 65% chance that the other half has 2, 3, or 4 aces, and a 35% chance that it has 0 or 1.

Let's apply even a little more common sense. Shuffle the deck and cut it into "left" and "right" halves. You then have the following possibilities:

Label | Aces in | Aces in
      | Left    | Right
------|---------+----------
  A   |  0      |   4
  B   |  1      |   3
  C   |  2      |   2
  D   |  3      |   1
  E   |  4      |   0
Because the "left" and "right" halves aren't treated preferentially, it follows that P(A) == P(E) and P(B) == P(D).
Since this is the complete list of possibilities, P(A) + P(B) + P(C) + P(D) + P(E) == 1.
Assuming that P(C) > 0, then it follows that P(A) + P(B) + P(D) + P(C) < 1.
Because of the equality of A and E, and of B and D, it further follows that P(A) + P(B) < 0.5, and from that it follows that P(C) + P(D) + P(E) > 0.5 ...
Just coincidentally (not), P(C) + P(D) + P(E) is "the probability of finding at least two aces" in the "left" half of the deck.
Not a complete proof due to the assumption, but unless you want to argue that it's impossible to find exactly two aces, I think we're settled ;)

[ Reply ]
      Typo alert by hobbs2006-09-08 00:47:06
      Yeah, I was just kinda thinking that by magixtechnica2006-09-08 00:54:23
        The big sigma is basically what my post by hobbs2006-09-08 00:59:23

 

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