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Can a necrophiliac be a sex offender? by toxin2006-11-19 12:55:59
  Without consent... by ol_gunner2006-03-30 10:26:43
    The US standard includes penetration by mmell 2006-03-30 10:34:17
Physical penetration of a bodily orifice (anus, genitals, mouth). Doesn't need to be by the perpetrator's body - forcible penetration with an inanimate object (such as a NYPD nightstick or plunger, to recall a case about five years ago) is also considered rape here in the US.

I don't believe there is anything in the statute requiring the victim to be alive. Indeed, it might even be difficult to prove whether copulation occured pre- or post-mortem.

Either way, this man's crime certainly fits the moral definition of rape - an assault including a sexual element intended to gratify the offender while simultaneously aggravating the existing assault to a level most reasonable people would consider heinous.

[ Reply ]
      Re: difficulty proving pre/post by sofaspud2006-03-30 17:48:55

 

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