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in a philosophical mood	by voxwoman	2006-11-19 12:55:59
IMO no.	by Peace_man	2005-08-04 10:01:30
Does the non-existence of something	by MatthewDBA	2005-08-04 10:20:20
necessarily follow from our inability to know it? To put it another way, you appear to be stating that because we cannot know any sort of absolute truth, absolute truth cannot exist. Even assuming Occam's Razor, your conclusion seems over-broad; it might be more appropriate to conclude that "one ought not hypothesize that absolute truth exists." Of course, if we can't know for certain whether Occam's Razor is absolutely true (which would follow if there were no absolute truth), we can't even go that far. But perhaps this in itself is becoming too rarefied a discussion. :-)
[ Reply ]
I guess what I'm trying to figure out is	by voxwoman	2005-08-04 10:25:27
Possibly they are both inherently unknowable?	by Peace_man	2005-08-04 10:34:27
twisting the brain counter-clockwise,	by webishop	2005-08-04 11:20:17
If we are unable to know something then	by Peace_man	2005-08-04 10:31:54
I suppose what I'm saying	by MatthewDBA	2005-08-04 10:48:14

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