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pedophilia | by dennismv | 2005-02-27 01:33:21 |
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Pedophilia vs. Homosexuality | by monika_krug | 2005-02-27 02:13:14 |
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well, | by dennismv | 2005-02-27 02:46:26 |
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Do you know anyone who was sexually abused | by NOLAWitch | 2005-02-27 06:31:24 |
| Should a sentance reflect the damage done |
by McGowan |
2005-02-27 08:12:51 |
or the crime?
Two very similar scenarios
A 43 year old man has sexual intercourse with a 12 year old girl, it happens a couple of times and there is no physical abuse. The girl grows up to be a perfectly normal adult.
A 43 year old man has sexual intercourse with a 12 year old girl, it happens a couple of times and there is no physical abuse. The girl grows up with severe issues and finds it difficult to live in normal society.
the man did exactly the same thing in both situations with considerably different results. Should he be punished for the crime? Or the result of the crime?
Hypothetically speaking lets pretend that as he goes to court it is known if the child will grow up to be "normal" or if she will have issues. Mob rule would punish him for the result of his crime should the law punish him equally in both cases?
I think the law should punish him equally either way but thats just my oppinion.
On a further note to test your reasoning skills: Should the intention to commit a crime recieve equal punishment to the actual crime? i.e. A man pulls a gun on someone and fires, it misfires for whatever reason. Should his sentance be equal to that of murder? With my previous reasoning then yes it should, on the other hand he didn't actually take a life.
I'd make a great judge, everyone would just be in purgetory till I retired! |
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[ Reply ] |
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Firstly, I know of nobody who was molested as a | by NOLAWitch | 2005-02-27 08:31:35 |
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I am sorry for the use of the word "normal" | by McGowan | 2005-02-27 08:43:06 |
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courts | by dennismv | 2005-02-27 18:00:59 |
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