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Yesterdays question of... | by garuda2001 | 2000-12-24 01:36:05 |
| Warning... math alert |
by Nea |
2000-12-25 01:31:40 |
| garuda2001 wrote:
>If you had an infinite supply of $$$ and you spend $1
>you would would have infinite money minus $1. Thus it
>would no longer be an infinite supply "for whatever
>is less than infinite is still infinitely distant
>from infinity" so even though you would still have
>more money it wouldn't be infinate once you spent it
>so it would be useless to you to have an Infinite
>supply
As someone who has been through way too much advanced mathematics, here's the story...
The mathematical properties of infinity are such that if you subtract any finite number from infinity you still have infinity. Therefore infinity minus 1 is still infinity. Since in our world it is only possible to spend finite amounts of money a finite number of times, you will always be subtracting finite numbers from the total and so you will never have less than an infinite amount.
The only way you have a chance to diminish the supply to less than an infinite amount is by spending and infinite amount of money at least one time, or by spending money an infinite number of times. And even then, depending on the type of infinity you're dealing with, you may still have an infinite amount of money.
And while it is true that any finite number is an infinite distance from infinity, your supply will never be finite. Thus this fact has nothing to add to the argument.
I won't even go into the different levels of infinity, my brain doesn't want to do that this late at night. And before my rambling gets any worse I'll quit. |
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