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Yesterdays question of...	by garuda2001	2000-12-24 01:36:05
RE: Yesterdays question of...	by Factitious	2000-12-24 15:17:53
I respectfully disagree. An infinite amount of money minus $1 (w-1) is not infinitely distant from infinity (w). The difference between them is just one. w-(w-1)=1. It's interesting to note that w-n, where n is any integer, is greater than n. (Though w/2 is in between them.) Thus, spending the money would not in practice diminish the amount you have left. garuda2001 wrote: >If you had an infinite supply of $$$ and you spend $1 you would would have infinite money minus $1. Thus it would no longer be an infinite supply "for whatever is less than infinite is still infinitely distant from infinity" so even though you would still have more money it wouldn't be infinate once you spent it so it would be useless to you to have an Infinite supply >James
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